To make all men see….. Ephesians 3:9

A Dispensation Isn’t What Theologians Say It Is

In I Corinthians 9:17, Paul says that “a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.” How is that gospel any different from other gospels? Why is it a dispensation of the gospel and why was it committed only to Paul.

Every gospel mentioned in the scripture always comes down to faith. Believing what God has revealed to man is always the basis for eternal soul salvation, so why is what was committed to Paul called a dispensation (of the gospel)?

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